compterized fraud

Reply #9

Ronnie316 — Fri, 11 May 2012 19:55:55 GMT

I like the You're dyslexic explanation the best.

Reply #8

SergeM — Fri, 11 May 2012 19:25:57 GMT

I went binomial with the odds.

Maybe you should write a page explaining the mathematics (Laplace ... ).

Reply #7

Todd — Fri, 11 May 2012 19:17:05 GMT

Honestly, you're investigating and answering questions that are not being asked.

When someone asks the odds of winning a particular lottery drawing, you do not say, Well, typically someone hits an average of every 10 drawings, so the odds are 1 in 10 trillion. That is incorrect, and anyone using that logic to explain odds does not understand odds.

I'm not going to get sucked into another discussion about what is the odds of so-and-so , because such discussions always devolve into people ap... [ More ]

Reply #6

SergeM — Fri, 11 May 2012 18:59:36 GMT

At roulette you can play the simple chances, red black, odd even, manque passe.

One of the best known games is betting the opposite of what has been drawn.

Say that you had 5 times red, you might start betting a progression on black.

The odds for black are 18/37. It is evident that the chances of getting black sooner or later is growing.

The same goes for coin flipping. It is also true that for 10000 coin flips one possible permutation of outcomes

is that you flip only heads.

T... [ More ]

Reply #5

Todd — Fri, 11 May 2012 17:51:54 GMT

I remember getting a note recently from someone who said they were trying to calculate lottery odds that included all the drawings that nobody hits, up until someone finally hits. I tried to explain that the odds don't work that way, and that the concept of odds spread across multiple drawings is something he fabricated out of thin air.

I have no idea if this is the same person that I responded to, but it sure sounds like it.

His concept is like saying that if I flip a coin 5 times and it... [ More ]

Reply #4

mediabrat — Fri, 11 May 2012 17:42:36 GMT

1.) You're dyslexic. The odds are 1 in 1,631,312, not 1 in 1,621,213.

2.) Your math is wrong. Lottery odds are calculated by the number of possible combinations, not permutations or anything else. Wisconsin's SuperCash game is a 6/39, so there are 3,262,623 different 6-number combinations you can pick using the numbers 1 to 39. The 1:1,631,312 odds come from the fact that your $1 gets you two plays. (3,262,623 divided by 2, rounded to the nearest whole number, is 1,631,312.)

3.) Speaking o... [ More ]

Reply #3

Nikkicute — Fri, 11 May 2012 16:50:53 GMT

Where is all this coming from.

Reply #2

maximumfun — Fri, 11 May 2012 16:07:39 GMT

Welcome to LP DeltaTom. That should be an interesting article... both for the Lottery portion and for info on the class action (lawyers and players

Reply #1

helpmewin — Fri, 11 May 2012 16:05:02 GMT

Shame on them

compterized fraud

DeltaTom — Fri, 11 May 2012 15:04:40 GMT

Attention: Check local Milwaukee Journal in the next few weeks for a Class Action lawsuit against the Wisconsin Lottery for compterized fraud. The Supercash odds may say 1:1,621,213 but I have 1:129,844,092,338 the Wisconsin lottery is 100% unfixed