|Posted: June 10, 2011, 6:18 pm - IP Logged|
How can states (such as Georgia) consider Gambling illegal and state-ran Lotteries (Georgia Lottery Coropartion) not a form of Gambling?? It seems like the Same thing to me, can anyone explain the wordage in the laws that allow this/make this determination?
Thanks for any inputs!
For the moment forget the fact that some states have sold their lotteries to private firms (but the state of course still gets a bite).
Take a state like Georgia, lotto but no casinos (I'm guessing from your post).
Who owns the lottery and gets the profits?
Now let's say they legalized casinos, like Mississipppi for example) and who owns those casinos? Isle of Capri, Harrah's, the Horseshoe, etc....
Who owns the casinos and gets the profits?
The casinos, the parent companies.
So while the state, county, and towsn the casinos are in do get some of that money, most of it goes back to the parent company of the casinos, almost all located in Nevada or Stlantic City. In essence, those casinos are little money vacuums that are a $$$$ pipleine right back to the parent company.
Those who run the lotteries love it when players look for consistency in something that's designed not to have any.
There is one and only one 'proven' system, and that is to book the action. No matter the game, let the players pick their own losers.