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Topic closed. 2 replies. Last post 14 years ago by Joy2.

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kentucky
United States
Member #2871
November 25, 2003
42 Posts
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 Posted: November 25, 2003, 10:27 pm - IP Logged

I must really be stupid because I do not understand this, but can somebody tell me! If the chance of winning a lottery is 1 in 100 for 1 combination, if the person plays 10 different combinations, does that change the odds of winning from 1 in 100, to 10 in 100, or are the odds now increased to 1 in 10?   isnt that the same thing ( 10 in 100 or 1 in 10)?   Is that the difference between odds and averages?

I'm sure this is probably simple to some people, but I do not understand this.

New Jersey
United States
Member #2376
September 25, 2003
582 Posts
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 Posted: November 25, 2003, 11:43 pm - IP Logged

I maybe be wrong but I dont think 10 in 100 goes to 1 in 10.  In a perfect world were all the #'s are evenly picked that would be the case.  But as we know, some numbers are picked more often then others.  So depending on what combination those 10 picks are, it would or would not increase your chances of winning to 1 in 10.

But if it was a perfect world, where all the #'s are evenly picked, then you are right, 10 in 100 will mean 1 in 10.

Another way to look at it would be that because you are talking about 1 combination out of 100 possible, that means a 1% chance of winning.  If you play 10 combination from a 100 possible then yes your chances of winning will be 10%.  (In a perfect world with all the numbers being evenly picked)

I HOPE I KNOW WHAT I'M TALKING ABOUT.