|Posted: April 9, 2006, 7:12 pm - IP Logged|
I agree with justxploring. I've also known a couple of cases where a man's child support for the children of his previous marriage was increased apparently based upon his second wife's income. I say "apparently" because I don't really know enough of the details of the case and the law to be absolutely certain, though that is what the wife indicated. Also, because this is a community property state (as I believe California is, also) it does sound reasonable.
The truth is, none of us can really answer your question because of state law and the specific situation. You'd just have to wait until you win, then see a good attorney.
For more on community property do a Google search:
define "community property"