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Someone explain...

Topic closed. 26 replies. Last post 9 years ago by psykomo.

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Wisconsin
United States
Member #1303
March 27, 2003
1508 Posts
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Posted: July 18, 2007, 6:53 am - IP Logged

I rarely buy scratch offs and usually only when i have won money playing pick 3 or 4.

one day i walked into a place and bought a 1.00 scratch of cause i thought the game was cool if you scratched 3 cats you won that prize. The first ticket was a looser. only had two cats i thought what the heck give me another one. The second ticket had 3 cats a 9 grand winner.

You just never know when it's going to happen. A co worker and his family were at a birthday dinner he bought his wife a scratch off they never bought scratch offs before they won 500 grand, again you just never know when it's going to happen.

Scratch offs are like bait we are the fishes dangle the right bate in front of us and we just might catch a winner.

 people don't care what the odds are they just want to win something.

HOO ! You'r saying you won $9,000 on a one dollar ticket ? !

There's no way that WI would ever have a 9 grand prize on a buck ticket ! I can't figure.....not just MD, but seems like all the other states are so much more generous than Wisconsin when it comes to payoffs. Seems like WI hates having to payout anything.

Belated congrats !

============

How can you tell if a politician is lying?

Answer: His lips are moving.

    KyMystikal's avatar - 1457224010054
    Florence, Alabama
    United States
    Member #8658
    November 13, 2004
    1993 Posts
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    Posted: July 18, 2007, 2:35 pm - IP Logged

    Yeah that's exactly my point.  Once I looked at the odds on the back of the ticket it made me wonder why anyone would waste a dollar on it when they could have smaller odds against them for a larger prize by just picking three digits at random straight on Pick 3.

    BTW I'm jealous. TN pays pretty good for Pick 3 according to your post.  WI only pays $80 for a 6-way box (with $1 bet) and $160 for a 3-way box (with $1 bet)

    Whenever I follow the wiing outlays on the WI Lottery site, to see how many winners there were, usually don't see much in the way of $1 winning tickets.  Usually people are playing fifty cent bets.

    Don't be jealous, TN pays the same. Those pay outs were for KY. I play pick 3 in KY and pick 4 in TN. Reason?? KY obviously has higher payout on Pick 3, and for the Pick 4 TN doesn't tax lottery winnings so I am told. I live on the border to both states.

    I love doubles and remember, it's just a game!!!!!!

      KyMystikal's avatar - 1457224010054
      Florence, Alabama
      United States
      Member #8658
      November 13, 2004
      1993 Posts
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      Posted: July 18, 2007, 2:38 pm - IP Logged

      HOO ! You'r saying you won $9,000 on a one dollar ticket ? !

      There's no way that WI would ever have a 9 grand prize on a buck ticket ! I can't figure.....not just MD, but seems like all the other states are so much more generous than Wisconsin when it comes to payoffs. Seems like WI hates having to payout anything.

      Belated congrats !

      I was always told that if you wanted to win the Powerball you needed to play in WI??

      I love doubles and remember, it's just a game!!!!!!

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        NY
        United States
        Member #23835
        October 16, 2005
        3474 Posts
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        Posted: July 18, 2007, 4:30 pm - IP Logged

        I think you missed the point of the example.  The game with a $100. top prize was twice as hard to win the $100. as the game with $100. as its third prize.  1 in 8,000 is much worse then 1 in 4,000 no math involved and besides that, the player has a abet tiny shot at two larger prizes at no additional cost to play.  With the choice being one of the two games it is very clear which is the better bet.  The lottery has no obligation to structure every scratch off game the same changing only the prize distribution, the overall odds of winning can very quite a bit which wouldn't be the case if every game was the same under the skin.  Anyone who buys scratch off tickets needs to check the prize odds for the games and whether any top prizes remain to be won as the state will continue to sell the tickets even after all the best prizes are won.  I don't recommend playing scratch offs because there may not be a top prize in your entire town if there are more cities then top prizes in your state.  What I prefer about the lotto games is you can make your own luck where you buy your tickets by picking the numbers you play.  BobP

        I didn't miss your point, I said I think it was wrong. The only objective way to decide which game is better is to look at the overall odds of winning, and/or how much is paid out for each dollar wagered, but that's not how you judged the game. You also did'n't consider what prizes had already been claimed or which ones were still available. You say one of the two games is a sucker bet based on the odds of winning one particular prize, but you're actually about 5% more likely to win something in that game. If the two games had identical odds and also pay out the same amount for every dollar wagered then the games are equal and which one you play is simply a matter of personal preference.If  one has better odds and a better or equal payout percentage, then it's a better game regardless of personal preferences about the prize structure.

        Imagine two games. One offers odds of 1 in 1000 for a top prize of $100,  $50 with 1 in 500 odds and $2 with 1 in 20 odds. Another game offers a top prize of $100 with odds of 1 in 2000, and also offers $50 with odds of  1 in 1200, $30 with odds of 1 in 200, $25 with odds of 1 in 75 and $5 with odds of 1 in 30. By your criteria the first game is better, but the overall odds are 1 in 18.9  and the game would only pay 30 cents on the dollar. Your chances of winning the $100 top prize in the other game are only half as good,  but the overall chances of winning are the same 1 in 18.9, and the payout would be 67 cents on the dollar. Both game offer nearly a 95% chance of losing, but one game pays out more than twice as much in prizes. Do you think the other is a better bet just because you're twice as likely to win the $100 top prize?


          United States
          Member #17555
          June 22, 2005
          5582 Posts
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          Posted: July 18, 2007, 4:53 pm - IP Logged

          Depending on the overall odds of a 5% ratio difference within the 1 in 30 odds is sufficient in remeding both games whether any conclusion was made by the original 17% reduction. Also many of the overall odds are wagered by the games designer to proport an allocation of identical parameters, within a borderline of + or - 5 differnce through that particular prize structure inference.

          If the payouts are 1/20 of the sub version of the old rules, then you would have to adjust the 12.6 percent  value within that fixed rate. Then, and only then, would you have to  divide by a total of 88 parts per thousand, and divide by 2.448 depending on many factors outside of 53% ratio division turnout. It's highly unlikely that the wagered dollar was in the reduction workout, but if it was, then someone will have to redo all those calculations, but this time reduce the 13.7 gap across the median line of the equation, thus leaving only about a tenth of the original factor of one and 22. 999999 This can only mean one thing. I scratch my head to think any other choice is doable.

          Though the 29 cent on the dollar might cause the algorithm to vacilate, one might find it easier to calculate a pontential frequency analysis report, showing the probabilty chart immenser, before buying any scratch-off. In other words, Calculate the verenity of the zeltex index conversion chart to it's true form, which can be obtained at any retail store.

          Good luck!

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            Coastal Georgia
            United States
            Member #2653
            October 30, 2003
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            Posted: July 18, 2007, 5:39 pm - IP Logged

            I see what you mean, Pac:

            Now, basically the only new principle involved is
            that instead of power being generated by the
            relative motion of conductors and fluxes, it's produced
            by the modial interaction of magneto-reluctance and
            capacitive diractance.

             

                                           

                          

             

             


              United States
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              June 22, 2005
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              Posted: July 18, 2007, 6:31 pm - IP Logged

              I see what you mean, Pac:

              Now, basically the only new principle involved is
              that instead of power being generated by the
              relative motion of conductors and fluxes, it's produced
              by the modial interaction of magneto-reluctance and
              capacitive diractance.

              That's correct. Here's the zeltex converter equation proponent, and exponent division .

              $$\bf\int H(x,x')\psi(x')dx' = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}                      \psi(x)+V(x)\psi(x)$$ And this is what you get:

              ó
              õ
              H(x,x¢)y(x¢)dx¢ = - (h/2p)2

              2m
               d2

              dx2
              y(x)+V(x)y(x)

              Consider, for example, a pair of equations x' = f(x,y,t), y' = g(x,y,t)
              (where ' = d/dt).  Suppose you want to eliminate y.  Differentiate the
              first equation and you have
              x" = f_1 x' + f_2 y' + f_3 = f_1 x' + f_2 g + f_3
              If f and g are polynomials, you can eliminate y from these equations
              by taking the resultant of x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f
              with respect to the variable y.  If they are rational functions,
              express  x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f as fractions and
              take the resultant of the numerators.

              Is that clear now?

              I hope this helps.

                Avatar
                Coastal Georgia
                United States
                Member #2653
                October 30, 2003
                1866 Posts
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                Posted: July 18, 2007, 8:00 pm - IP Logged

                That's correct. Here's the zeltex converter equation proponent, and exponent division .

                $$\bf\int H(x,x')\psi(x')dx' = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}                      \psi(x)+V(x)\psi(x)$$ And this is what you get:

                ó
                õ
                H(x,x¢)y(x¢)dx¢ = - (h/2p)2

                2m
                 d2

                dx2
                y(x)+V(x)y(x)

                Consider, for example, a pair of equations x' = f(x,y,t), y' = g(x,y,t)
                (where ' = d/dt).  Suppose you want to eliminate y.  Differentiate the
                first equation and you have
                x" = f_1 x' + f_2 y' + f_3 = f_1 x' + f_2 g + f_3
                If f and g are polynomials, you can eliminate y from these equations
                by taking the resultant of x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f
                with respect to the variable y.  If they are rational functions,
                express  x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f as fractions and
                take the resultant of the numerators.

                Is that clear now?

                I hope this helps.

                Crystal.

                 

                                               

                              

                 

                 

                  jarasan's avatar - new patrick.gif
                  Harbinger
                  D.C./MD.
                  United States
                  Member #44103
                  July 30, 2006
                  5583 Posts
                  Online
                  Posted: July 18, 2007, 8:08 pm - IP Logged

                  That's correct. Here's the zeltex converter equation proponent, and exponent division .

                  $$\bf\int H(x,x')\psi(x')dx' = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}                      \psi(x)+V(x)\psi(x)$$ And this is what you get:

                  ó
                  õ
                  H(x,x¢)y(x¢)dx¢ = - (h/2p)2

                  2m
                   d2

                  dx2
                  y(x)+V(x)y(x)

                  Consider, for example, a pair of equations x' = f(x,y,t), y' = g(x,y,t)
                  (where ' = d/dt).  Suppose you want to eliminate y.  Differentiate the
                  first equation and you have
                  x" = f_1 x' + f_2 y' + f_3 = f_1 x' + f_2 g + f_3
                  If f and g are polynomials, you can eliminate y from these equations
                  by taking the resultant of x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f
                  with respect to the variable y.  If they are rational functions,
                  express  x" - f_1 x' - f_2 g - f_3 and x' - f as fractions and
                  take the resultant of the numerators.

                  Is that clear now?

                  I hope this helps.

                  Please post in the proper forum. 

                  <moved to the proper forum> mathematics

                  <jarasan>


                    United States
                    Member #17555
                    June 22, 2005
                    5582 Posts
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                    Posted: July 19, 2007, 1:23 am - IP Logged

                    Please post in the proper forum. 

                    <moved to the proper forum> mathematics

                    <jarasan>

                    Sorry Todd.....I should've known better...

                    Please splain Lucy....

                      four4me's avatar - gate1
                      MD
                      United States
                      Member #1701
                      June 18, 2003
                      8364 Posts
                      Online
                      Posted: July 19, 2007, 1:35 am - IP Logged

                      PAC the jokes on you Todd didn't post that

                        psykomo's avatar - animal shark.jpg

                        United States
                        Member #4877
                        May 30, 2004
                        5124 Posts
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                        Posted: July 20, 2007, 10:28 pm - IP Logged

                        I rarely buy scratch offs and usually only when i have won money playing pick 3 or 4.

                        one day i walked into a place and bought a 1.00 scratch of cause i thought the game was cool if you scratched 3 cats you won that prize. The first ticket was a looser. only had two cats i thought what the heck give me another one. The second ticket had 3 cats a 9 grand winner.

                        You just never know when it's going to happen. A co worker and his family were at a birthday dinner he bought his wife a scratch off they never bought scratch offs before they won 500 grand, again you just never know when it's going to happen.

                        Scratch offs are like bait we are the fishes dangle the right bate in front of us and we just might catch a winner.

                         people don't care what the odds are they just want to win something.

                        four4me:

                        I never buy scratch-offs...................>>>>>>>>BUT, thanks to "U"^

                        I will try a FEW for me and the cat...$$$$$$$$$OD , jest for LUCK!

                        I agree w/U.................can use all the LOL I can GET>>>>>>>>>>

                        IT may HELP pay for this KAT's feed bill & HE may be LOL to ME too!

                        PSYKOMO