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# If you can pick one number you can win P3

Topic closed. 64 replies. Last post 13 years ago by Clipper.

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Dump Water Florida
United States
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June 5, 2002
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 Posted: May 6, 2004, 12:35 am - IP Logged
Quote: O

United States
Member #4430
April 24, 2004
84 Posts
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 Posted: May 6, 2004, 10:46 pm - IP Logged

Well all i had to say so far had nothing to do with predictions  at all. I use averages and averages is what makes u win. Basically, I'm talkin bout the continuing cycle of averages. So as far as my coin flipping examples, that has nothing to do with predicting what the next outcome will be. It was just an example to make it easier 4 people to understand.

United States
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April 24, 2004
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 Posted: May 6, 2004, 10:49 pm - IP Logged

All i'm saying is that with the knowledge that i have, i'm ahead of the game, on an "average" basis" :)

The info i posted in this thread has nothing to do with how i predict numbers. I don't predict numbers. I use probabilty to my adavantage.

Clarksville
United States
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July 15, 2002
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 Posted: May 7, 2004, 9:15 am - IP Logged

I have been reading this thread for a whole week now..and I like what I am reading..you guys keep going..it makes one think..

If you know your number is going to hit, have patience and then KILL IT!

You never know when you will get another hit.

Texas
United States
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May 7, 2003
2311 Posts
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 Posted: May 15, 2004, 5:50 pm - IP Logged

BobP = Here is some info about the "one digit" that you might find useful.  This is in regards to "repeat digits" from previous game played.

When you are coming off a 3 different digit game and there is a 1 digit repeat, you reduce the 220 possible combinations to 84 possible combinations.  This equates to 28 possible 3 digit combinations per each of the 3 digits that previously played.

If you can eliminate 2 of those digits then you have only 28 possible 3-digit combinations to work with that include Doubles and Pures.  In this scenario, out of the 28 possibles 15 of the 28 are 3 different digit combinations leaving 13 for Doubles & Pures.

If you are working off a No Repeat game, the 220 possibles are reduced to 80 probables.  Out of this 80, 50 of the possibles deal with Doubles & Pures while 30 are 3 different digits.

I found here in Texas Midday that with the 50/30 split with Doubles & Pures being the larger group that Doubles happen more often coming off a No Repeat then a Repeat situation by a 57 to 45 ratio in the database I have that goes back to 2-3-2003.      There are periods of time when each is running about 50/50 but there seem to be longer periods of time when the case of a Double appearing on a Non-repeat instance happens more often then coming on a Repeat situation.

When I checked the South Carolina Combined Database, things were different.  Seems a Double happening with a repeat digit from previous game (whether the single digit or the one that doubles) happens more often then a Double coming off a "non-repeat" circumstance.

In fact, Doubles in SC (database goes back to 10-1-2003) they were about 50/50 starting out until Doubles with a repeat digit took a slight lead to be 69 to 62 in the final analysis.  For this reason I wonder if things might be different if only Individual databases were analysised and it would also be on a "state-by-state" basis as to whether the higher ratio would pertain to Repeat situations or No Repeat situations.

Something else, if you are coming off a Doubles game and have a 1 digit repeat, the 220 combinations are reduced to 72 possibles.  Of these 50 will be 3 different digits and 22 will be Doubles/Pures.  I know we sometimes see "back to back" doubles and you would think the probability of that happening would be less of a chance with the higher ratio of 3 different digits probable then Doubles.

Anyway....thought the above would be a little "food for thought" <G>

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